CPC Exam Question 36

A patient with severe diverticulitis in the sigmoid colon presents to surgery for a partial colectomy. The physician performs an exploratory laparoscopic laparotomy to verify the location of the diverticulitis. Once identified, it was noted that there was bleeding from the diverticulitis. The physician transects the descending colon and then transects at the line of the rectum.
The physician mobilizes the splenic flexure in order to create a colostomy with the proximal portion of the remaining colon. The distal portion of the colon is closed. The physician washes the patient ' s abdomen with saline, removes all trocars and instruments, and then closes the abdomen with sutures.
What CPTand ICD-10-CM codes are reported?
  • CPC Exam Question 37

    (A 60-year-old man presents for examination of the entire rectum andsigmoid colon. Two polyps are found in the sigmoid colon and removed usingablation. What CPTand ICD-10-CM codes are reported?)
  • CPC Exam Question 38

    The Medicare program has multiple parts covering different services. Which part provides coverage for outpatient physician charges?
  • CPC Exam Question 39

    Preoperative diagnosis: Right thigh benign congenital hairy nevus. *1
    Postoperative diagnosis: Right thigh benign congenital hairy 0 nevus.
    Operation performed: Excision of right thigh benign congenital>1
    nevus, excision size with margins 4.5 cm and closure size 5 cm.
    Anesthesia: General.0
    Intraoperative antibiotics: Ancef.0
    Indications: The patient is a 5-year-old girl who presented with her parents for evaluation of her right thigh congenital nevus. It has been followed by pediatrics and thought to have changed over the past year. Family requested excision. They understood the risks involved, which included but were not limited to risks of general anesthesia, infection, bleeding, wound dehiscence, and poor scar formation. They understood the scar would likely widen as the child grows because of the location of it and because of the age of the patient. They consented to proceed.
    Description of procedure: The patient was seen preoperatively in > I the holding area, identified, and then brought to the operating room. Once adequate general anesthesia had been induced, the patient's right thigh was prepped and draped in standard surgical fashion. An elliptical excision measuring 6 x 1.8 cm had been marked. This was injected with Lidocaine with epinephrine, total of 6 cc of 1% with 1:100,000. After an adequate amount of time, a #15 blade was used to sharply excise this full thickness.
    This was passed to pathology for review. The wound required # limited undermining in the deep subcutaneous plane on both sides for approximately 1.5 cm in order to allow mobilization of the skin for closure. The skin was then closed in a layered fashion using 3-0 Vicryl on the dermis and then 4-0 Monocryl running subcuticular in the skin, the wound was cleaned and dressed with Dermabond and Steri-Strips.
    The patient was then cleaned and turned over to anesthesia for S extubation.
    She was extubated successfully in the operating room and taken S to the recovery room in stable condition.
    There were no complications.
    What CPT and ICD-10-CM codes are reported?
  • CPC Exam Question 40

    View MR 002395
    MR 002395
    Operative Report
    Pre-operative Diagnosis: Acute rotator cuff tear
    Post-operative Diagnosis: Acute rotator cuff tear, synovitis
    Procedures:
    1) Rotator cuff repair
    2) Biceps Tenodesis
    3) Claviculectomy
    4) Coracoacromial ligament release
    Indication: Rotator cuff injury of a 32-year-old male, sustained while playing soccer.
    Findings: Complete tear of the right rotator cuff, synovitis, impingement.
    Procedure: The patient was prepared for surgery and placed in left lateral decubitus position. Standard posterior arthroscopy portals were made followed by an anterior-superior portal. Diagnostic arthroscopy was performed. Significant synovitis was carefully debrided. There was a full-thickness upper 3rd subscapularis tear, which was repaired. The lesser tuberosity was debrided back to bleeding healthy bone and a Mitek 4.5 mm helix anchor was placed in the lesser tuberosity. Sutures were passed through the subcapulans in a combination of horizontal mattress and simple interrupted fashion and then tied. There was a partial-thickness tearing of the long head of the biceps. The biceps were released and then anchored in the intertubercular groove with a screw. There was a large anterior acromial spur with subacromial impingement. A CA ligament was released and acromioplasty was performed. Attention was then directed to the supraspinatus tendon tear. The tear was V-shaped and measured approximately 2.5 cm from anterior to posterior. Two Smith & Nephew PEEK anchors were used for the medial row utilizing Healicoil anchors.
    Side-to-side stitches were placed. One set of suture tape from each of the medial anchors was then placed through a laterally placed Mitek helix PEEK knotless anchor which was fully inserted after tensioning the tapes. A solid repair was obtained. Next there were severe degenerative changes at the AC joint of approximately 8 to 10 mm. The distal clavicle was resected taking care to preserve the superior AC joint capsule. The shoulder was thoroughly lavaged. The instruments were removed and the incisions were closed in routine fashion. Sterile dressing was applied. The patient was transferred to recovery in stable condition.
    What CPT coding is reported for this case?