CISA Exam Question 76
Which of following areas is MOST important for an IS auditor to focus on when reviewing the maturity model for a technology organization?
Correct Answer: C
A maturity model for a technology organization is a tool that measures the progress and capability of the IT function in relation to its goals, processes, and practices. A maturity model can help identify gaps and areas for improvement, as well as benchmark the IT function against industry standards or best practices. One of the key aspects of a maturity model is the definition and clarity of roles and responsibilities for the IT function and its stakeholders. A roles and responsibility matrix, such as a RACI matrix, is a document that clarifies who is responsible, accountable, consulted, and informed for each task or deliverable in a project or process.
A roles and responsibility matrix can help avoid confusion, duplication, or omission of work, as well as ensure accountability and communication among the IT function and its customers, partners, and suppliers.
Therefore, an IS auditor should focus on reviewing the roles and responsibility matrix when evaluating the maturity model for a technology organization.
A standard operating procedure (SOP) is a document that describes the steps and instructions for performing a routine or repetitive task or process. SOPs are important for ensuring consistency, quality, and compliance in the IT function, but they are not directly related to the maturity model. A service level agreement (SLA) is a contract that defines the expectations and obligations between an IT service provider and its customers. SLAs are important for ensuring customer satisfaction, performance measurement, and dispute resolution in the IT function, but they are not directly related to the maturity model. A business resiliency plan is a document that outlines how an IT function will continue to operate or recover from a disruption or disaster. Business resiliency is important for ensuring availability, reliability, and security in the IT function, but it is not directly related to the maturity model. References: 1: Maturity Models for IT & Technology | Splunk 2: Responsibility assignment matrix - Wikipedia 3: Roles and Responsibilities Matrix - SDLCforms
A roles and responsibility matrix can help avoid confusion, duplication, or omission of work, as well as ensure accountability and communication among the IT function and its customers, partners, and suppliers.
Therefore, an IS auditor should focus on reviewing the roles and responsibility matrix when evaluating the maturity model for a technology organization.
A standard operating procedure (SOP) is a document that describes the steps and instructions for performing a routine or repetitive task or process. SOPs are important for ensuring consistency, quality, and compliance in the IT function, but they are not directly related to the maturity model. A service level agreement (SLA) is a contract that defines the expectations and obligations between an IT service provider and its customers. SLAs are important for ensuring customer satisfaction, performance measurement, and dispute resolution in the IT function, but they are not directly related to the maturity model. A business resiliency plan is a document that outlines how an IT function will continue to operate or recover from a disruption or disaster. Business resiliency is important for ensuring availability, reliability, and security in the IT function, but it is not directly related to the maturity model. References: 1: Maturity Models for IT & Technology | Splunk 2: Responsibility assignment matrix - Wikipedia 3: Roles and Responsibilities Matrix - SDLCforms
CISA Exam Question 77
An IS auditor is conducting a physical security audit of a healthcare facility and finds closed-circuit television (CCTV) systems located in a patient care area. Which of the following is the GREATEST concern?
Correct Answer: B
The greatest concern with finding closed-circuit television (CCTV) systems located in a patient care area is that there are no notices indicating recording is in progress. This is because CCTV systems in healthcare settings can pose a threat to the privacy and confidentiality of patients, staff, and visitors, especially in sensitive areas where personal or medical information may be exposed. According to the government's Surveillance camera code of practice1, CCTV operators must be as transparent as possible in the use of CCTV, and inform people that they are being recorded by using clear and visible signs. The signs should also provide contact details of the CCTV operator and the purpose of the surveillance. By providing notices, CCTV operators can comply with data protection law and respect the rights and expectations of individuals.
Option B is correct because the lack of notices indicating recording is in progress is a clear violation of the Surveillance camera code of practice1, which applies to local authorities and the police, and is encouraged to be adopted by other CCTV operators in England and Wales. The code also applies to Scotland, along with the National Strategy for Public Space CCTV2. The code is intended to be used in conjunction with the guidance provided by the Information Commissioner's Office (ICO)3, which applies across the UK. The ICO states that CCTV operators must inform people that they are being recorded by using prominent signs at the entrance of the CCTV zone and reinforcing this with further signs inside the area.
Option A is incorrect because cameras not being monitored 24/7 is not the greatest concern, as it does not necessarily affect the privacy and confidentiality of individuals. CCTV systems may have different purposes and objectives, such as deterring or monitoring crime, enhancing security, or improving patient care.
Depending on the purpose, CCTV systems may not require constant monitoring, but rather periodic review or analysis. However, CCTV operators should still ensure that they have adequate security measures to protect the CCTV systems from unauthorized access or tampering.
Option C is incorrect because the retention period for video recordings being undefined is not the greatest concern, as it does not directly affect the privacy and confidentiality of individuals. However, CCTV operators should still define and document their retention policy, and ensure that they do not keep video recordings for longer than necessary, unless they are needed for a specific purpose or as evidence. The retention period should be based on a clear and justifiable rationale, and comply with data protection law and industry guidelines.
Option D is incorrect because there being no backups of the videos is not the greatest concern, as it does not affect the privacy and confidentiality of individuals. However, CCTV operators should still consider having backups of their videos, especially if they are needed for a specific purpose or as evidence. Backups can help to prevent data loss or corruption due to system failures, disasters, or malicious attacks. Backups should also be stored securely and encrypted to prevent unauthorized access or disclosure.
Option B is correct because the lack of notices indicating recording is in progress is a clear violation of the Surveillance camera code of practice1, which applies to local authorities and the police, and is encouraged to be adopted by other CCTV operators in England and Wales. The code also applies to Scotland, along with the National Strategy for Public Space CCTV2. The code is intended to be used in conjunction with the guidance provided by the Information Commissioner's Office (ICO)3, which applies across the UK. The ICO states that CCTV operators must inform people that they are being recorded by using prominent signs at the entrance of the CCTV zone and reinforcing this with further signs inside the area.
Option A is incorrect because cameras not being monitored 24/7 is not the greatest concern, as it does not necessarily affect the privacy and confidentiality of individuals. CCTV systems may have different purposes and objectives, such as deterring or monitoring crime, enhancing security, or improving patient care.
Depending on the purpose, CCTV systems may not require constant monitoring, but rather periodic review or analysis. However, CCTV operators should still ensure that they have adequate security measures to protect the CCTV systems from unauthorized access or tampering.
Option C is incorrect because the retention period for video recordings being undefined is not the greatest concern, as it does not directly affect the privacy and confidentiality of individuals. However, CCTV operators should still define and document their retention policy, and ensure that they do not keep video recordings for longer than necessary, unless they are needed for a specific purpose or as evidence. The retention period should be based on a clear and justifiable rationale, and comply with data protection law and industry guidelines.
Option D is incorrect because there being no backups of the videos is not the greatest concern, as it does not affect the privacy and confidentiality of individuals. However, CCTV operators should still consider having backups of their videos, especially if they are needed for a specific purpose or as evidence. Backups can help to prevent data loss or corruption due to system failures, disasters, or malicious attacks. Backups should also be stored securely and encrypted to prevent unauthorized access or disclosure.
CISA Exam Question 78
Which of the following would be MOST useful when analyzing computer performance?
Correct Answer: A
Computer performance is the measure of how well a computer system can execute tasks and applications within a given time frame. Computer performance can be affected by various factors, such as hardware specifications, software configuration, network conditions, and user behavior. To analyze computer performance, it is important to use statistical metrics that can quantify the capacity utilization of the system resources, such as CPU, memory, disk, and network. These metrics can help identify the bottlenecks, inefficiencies, and anomalies that may degrade the performance of the system. Examples of such metrics include CPU utilization, memory usage, disk throughput, network bandwidth, and response time.
The other options are not as useful as statistical metrics when analyzing computer performance. An operations report of user dissatisfaction with response time is a subjective measure that may not reflect the actual performance of the system. Tuning of system software to optimize resource usage is a corrective action that can improve performance, but it is not a method of analysis. A report of off-peak utilization and response time is a limited snapshot that may not capture the peak performance or the average performance of the system.
References:
* What is Computer Performance?
* How to Measure Computer Performance
The other options are not as useful as statistical metrics when analyzing computer performance. An operations report of user dissatisfaction with response time is a subjective measure that may not reflect the actual performance of the system. Tuning of system software to optimize resource usage is a corrective action that can improve performance, but it is not a method of analysis. A report of off-peak utilization and response time is a limited snapshot that may not capture the peak performance or the average performance of the system.
References:
* What is Computer Performance?
* How to Measure Computer Performance
CISA Exam Question 79
An organization relies on an external vendor that uses a cloud-based Software as a Service (SaaS) model to back up its data. Which of the following is the GREATEST risk to the organization related to data backup and retrieval?
Correct Answer: B
An organization relies on an external vendor that uses a cloud-based Software as a Service (SaaS) model to back up its data. SaaS is a model in which the software is centrally hosted and accessed by the user via a web browser using the internet1. The vendor owns and maintains the software and the data, and the organization pays for the use of the service on a subscription or usage basis1. The greatest risk to the organization related to data backup and retrieval is that the vendor may be unable to restore critical data.
Data backup and retrieval are essential processes for ensuring the availability, integrity, and security of data in case of loss, corruption, or damage2. Data backup is the process of creating and storing copies of data in a separate location from the original data2. Data retrieval is the process of accessing and restoring the backed- up data when needed2. Critical data are data that are vital for the operation, continuity, and recovery of the organization3.
If the vendor is unable to restore critical data, the organization may face severe consequences, such as:
Business disruption: The organization may not be able to perform its core functions, deliver its products or services, or meet its customer or stakeholder expectations3.
Revenue loss: The organization may lose income, market share, or competitive advantage due to reduced sales, customer dissatisfaction, or reputation damage3.
Legal liability: The organization may face lawsuits, fines, or penalties for breaching contractual, regulatory, or statutory obligations related to data protection, privacy, or security3.
Recovery cost: The organization may incur additional expenses for repairing or replacing the lost or corrupted data, restoring the system functionality, or compensating the affected parties3.
The other options are not as great as the vendor's inability to restore critical data. The organization may be locked into an unfavorable contract with the vendor, which may limit its flexibility, control, or choice over the service quality, cost, or duration4. However, this risk can be mitigated by negotiating better terms and conditions, reviewing the contract periodically, or switching to another vendor if possible4. The vendor may be unable to restore data by recovery time objective (RTO) requirements, which are the maximum acceptable time frames for restoring data after a disruption5. However, this risk can be reduced by setting realistic and achievable RTOs, monitoring the vendor's performance, or implementing alternative recovery strategies if needed5. The organization may not be allowed to inspect the vendor's data center, which may limit its visibility, transparency, or assurance over the service provider's infrastructure, security, or compliance.
However, this risk can be overcome by requesting third-party audits, certifications, or reports from the vendor that demonstrate their adherence to industry standards and best practices. Therefore, option B is the correct answer.
References:
What is SaaS? Software as a Service | Microsoft Azure
What is Data Backup? - Definition from Techopedia
Critical Data Definition
The Risks of Cloud Computing | Cloud Academy
Recovery Time Objective (RTO) Definition
[Cloud Computing Security Risks: What You Need To Know | CloudHealth by VMware]
Data backup and retrieval are essential processes for ensuring the availability, integrity, and security of data in case of loss, corruption, or damage2. Data backup is the process of creating and storing copies of data in a separate location from the original data2. Data retrieval is the process of accessing and restoring the backed- up data when needed2. Critical data are data that are vital for the operation, continuity, and recovery of the organization3.
If the vendor is unable to restore critical data, the organization may face severe consequences, such as:
Business disruption: The organization may not be able to perform its core functions, deliver its products or services, or meet its customer or stakeholder expectations3.
Revenue loss: The organization may lose income, market share, or competitive advantage due to reduced sales, customer dissatisfaction, or reputation damage3.
Legal liability: The organization may face lawsuits, fines, or penalties for breaching contractual, regulatory, or statutory obligations related to data protection, privacy, or security3.
Recovery cost: The organization may incur additional expenses for repairing or replacing the lost or corrupted data, restoring the system functionality, or compensating the affected parties3.
The other options are not as great as the vendor's inability to restore critical data. The organization may be locked into an unfavorable contract with the vendor, which may limit its flexibility, control, or choice over the service quality, cost, or duration4. However, this risk can be mitigated by negotiating better terms and conditions, reviewing the contract periodically, or switching to another vendor if possible4. The vendor may be unable to restore data by recovery time objective (RTO) requirements, which are the maximum acceptable time frames for restoring data after a disruption5. However, this risk can be reduced by setting realistic and achievable RTOs, monitoring the vendor's performance, or implementing alternative recovery strategies if needed5. The organization may not be allowed to inspect the vendor's data center, which may limit its visibility, transparency, or assurance over the service provider's infrastructure, security, or compliance.
However, this risk can be overcome by requesting third-party audits, certifications, or reports from the vendor that demonstrate their adherence to industry standards and best practices. Therefore, option B is the correct answer.
References:
What is SaaS? Software as a Service | Microsoft Azure
What is Data Backup? - Definition from Techopedia
Critical Data Definition
The Risks of Cloud Computing | Cloud Academy
Recovery Time Objective (RTO) Definition
[Cloud Computing Security Risks: What You Need To Know | CloudHealth by VMware]
CISA Exam Question 80
An IS auditor discovers a box of hard drives in a secured location that are overdue for physical destruction.
The vendor responsible for this task was never made aware of these hard drives.
Which of the following is the BEST course of action to address this issue?
The vendor responsible for this task was never made aware of these hard drives.
Which of the following is the BEST course of action to address this issue?
Correct Answer: A
The issue seems to stem from a breakdown in the workflow or process for handling assets that are due for destruction12. By examining the workflow, the IS auditor can identify where the process failed, such as why the vendor was not notified about the hard drives12. This could involve reviewing procedures for inventory management, communication with vendors, and tracking of assets due for destruction12. The findings can then be used to improve the workflow and prevent similar issues in the future12.
References:
* How To Properly Destroy A Hard Drive - Tech News Today
* How to safely and securely destroy hard disk data - iFixit
References:
* How To Properly Destroy A Hard Drive - Tech News Today
* How to safely and securely destroy hard disk data - iFixit
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