Explanation
T-bill futures 'discount' can be converted to a price for the bill using the formula Price = [1 - discount * number of days/360]. In this case, this works out to (1- 10% *90/360) * 100 = $97.50. Choice 'd' is the correct answer.

Explanation
Since AUD 1 = USD 0.6831, and USD 1 = SEK 8.1329, AUD 1 = SEK 8.1329*0.6831 = 5.5556.
It is important to remember how exchange rates are generally quoted. Most exchange rates are quoted in terms of how many foreign currencies does USD 1 buy. Therefore, a rate of 99 for the JPY means that USD 1 is equal to JPY 99. However, there are four major world currencies where the rate quote convention is the other way round - these are EUR, GBP, AUD and NZD. For these currencies, the FX quote implies how many US dollars can one unit of these currencies buy. So a quote of "1.1023" for the Euro means EUR 1 is equal to USD 1.1023 and not the other way round.
When calculating cross rates, it is important to pay attention to how the rates are quoted. This particular question is quoted in a very straightforward way because it specifies exactly what the rate means, eg by saying USD/AUD it clarifies that the rate is the number of USDs per AUD. If the question is not clear, remember how exchange rates are quoted - all are against 1 USD, except for EUR, GBP, AUD and NZD where it is the other way round.

Explanation
The stock has a beta of 1.2, therefore intuitively it can be expected to earn more than the broad market index.
It will earn the risk free rate, ie 3%, and 1.2 times the equity risk premium of 5% (8% - 3%). The expected returns from the stock therefore are 3% + (8% - 3%)*1.2 = 9%

Explanation
A cash or nothing call is one that pays a fixed amount if the underlying exceeds a certain threshold, or nothing.
An asset or nothing call is the same as the cash or nothing call except that instead of paying a fixed amount, it
'pays' the asset. Therefore the payoff profile of a long asset or nothing call has the same payoff as a long cash or nothing call and a long vanilla call.
This is best considered by building payoff diagrams which will show how the two positions are economically equivalent. Choice 'd' is the correct answer, and the rest are not.

Explanation
In this case, we need to determine the value today of an FRA where the bank has to pay 4% from year 2 to 3 in exchange for the then prevailing LIBOR. We do this by using the forward rate from year 2 to 3, and comparing it to the fixed rate. The forward rate is determined from the zero rates as =(1.03^3 / 1.025^2) - 1 =
4.0073%. The bank is committed to paying 4%, therefore the value of the FRA at the end of year 3 = (4.0073% - 4%) * $10m = $732.90. But this is the value at the end of year 3, and needs to be discounted to the present using the 3 year zero rate. Therefore the value of the FRA is $732.90/(1.03^3) = $670.70.