Explanation
A utility function is graphed with utility on the y-axis and the variable driving utility (generally wealth) along the x-axis.
A concave utility function, ie a function with a downward sloping curve, indicates risk aversion. A convex utility function indicates a risk seeking attitude and a straight line (ie no curvature) indicates a risk neutral attitude.

Explanation
There was no event such as the CDO squeeze in 2008. (Quite on the contrary, securitized products were selling at distressed prices.).
The silver squeeze of 1979-80 (Hunt brothers), the Chicago fire of 1872 (leading to a short squeeze on wheat), and the wheat squeeze (Hutchingson) of 1866 are real historical events that led to short squeezes in commodity markets. Choice 'b' is therefore the correct answer.
For the PRM exam, you should try to remember the event broadly, and the commodity involved.

Explanation
The dividend payment has a present value of $2.20*e^( -6%*6/12) = $2.14. Therefore the forward price for delivery 9 months hence should be ($102 - $2.14)*e^(7%*9/12) = $105.25

Explanation
For fixed income portfolios where standard cash flow discounting models are not available, duration calculations are based upon estimated price moves in response to a change in rates. Recall that we define duration as the percentage change in price expected for a 1% change in yield. In this case, we have three price points known to us:
Line | Price | Yield
a | $102 | r - 45bps
b | $100 | r
c | $ 97 | r + 45bps
(where r is the current yield)
The change in price from line a to line c is $102m - $97m = $5m. We use the middle point, ie $100m, to calculate the percentage change. Therefore the percentage change in price is $5m/$100m = 5%.
The change in yield between lines a and c is 90 basis points [=(r+45bps) - (r-45bps)]. In other words, the change in price is 5% for a 90 bps change in yield. So the duration can be calculated as 5/(90/100) = 5.56. The other answers are incorrect.

Explanation
Interest rate caps are effectively call options on an underlying interest rate that protect the buyer of the cap against a rise in interest rates over the agreed exercise rate. As with options, the premium on the cap depends upon the volatility of the underlying rates as one of its variables. A floor is the exact opposite of a cap, ie it is effectively a put option on an underlying interest rate that protects the buyer of the floor against a fall in interest rates below the agreed exercise rate.
A cap protects a borrower against a rise in interest rates beyond a point, and a floor protects a lender against a fall in interest rates below a point.
A collar is a combination of a long cap and a short floor, the idea being that the premium due on the cap is offset partly by the premium earned on the short floor position. Therefore a collar is less expensive than a cap or a floor.
Caps, floors and collars provide a hedge against interest rate risks, but do not protect against changes in credit spreads unless the reference rate already includes the spread (eg, by reference to the corporate bond rate), and they certainly do not have anything to do with gamma risk. Therefore Choice 'c' is the correct answer.