Your clients, Jessica and Ken, want to buy a house next year. You recommend a money market fund. How do you think a money market fund will help Jessica and Ken reach their goal?
Correct Answer: C
CIFC Exam Question 77
What purpose does it serve for non-money market mutual funds to hold money market instruments?
Correct Answer: A
CIFC Exam Question 78
Derek submits an order to sell 300 units of the Evergreen Canadian Mortgage Fund at 8:00 p.m. EST on Friday, January 6. His proceeds will be based on the net asset value per unit (NAVPU) for which day (assume no holidays)?
Correct Answer: C
Explanation The net asset value per unit (NAVPU) is the price at which mutual fund units are bought and sold. The NAVPU is calculated at the end of each business day, based on the closing market value of the fund's assets and liabilities. When an investor submits an order to buy or sell mutual fund units, the order is processed at the NAVPU of the next valuation date, which is the next business day after the order is received by the fund company. This is called forward pricing. In this case, Derek submits his order to sell 300 units of the Evergreen Canadian Mortgage Fund at 8:00 p.m. EST on Friday, January 6. This is after the cut-off time for that day, which is usually 4:00 p.m. EST. Therefore, his order will be processed at the NAVPU of the next valuation date, which is Monday, January 9. However, since the Evergreen Canadian Mortgage Fund is a money market fund, it has a one-day settlement period, which means that Derek will receive his proceeds on the following business day after his order is processed. Therefore, his proceeds will be based on the NAVPU for Tuesday, January 10. References: Canadian Investment Funds Course (CIFC) Study Guide, Chapter 4: Mutual Funds, Section 4.4: Buying and Selling Mutual Funds, page 4-161 Forward Pricing Definition - Investopedia2 Money Market Fund Definition - Investopedia3
CIFC Exam Question 79
Which of the following Dealing Representatives has CORRECTLY fulfilled their suitability obligation?
Correct Answer: B
Explanation Kiri has correctly fulfilled his suitability obligation by matching the risk-return profile of the fund with the personal circumstances of his client. The Conservative Bond Fund is a low-risk, low-return fund that pays regular interest income to investors. Myrtle's investment objective is "income", which means she wants to receive steady income from her investments and preserve her capital. Therefore, Kiri's recommendation is reasonably suitable for Myrtle in all the circumstances. (Canadian Investment Funds Course, Chapter 2, Section 2.3) References: * Canadian Investment Funds Course, Chapter 2, Section 2.3: Conflicts of Interest * IFSE Institute: Suitability Obligations1 * SFC: Frequently Asked Questions on Compliance with Suitability Obligations2
CIFC Exam Question 80
Axis Wealth Management Inc. is a mutual fund dealer and member of the Mutual Fund Dealers Association of Canada (MFDA). Indrek is a Branch Manager for the Guelph Branch and he is responsible for conducting suitability reviews in order to identify any unsuitable transactions or accounts. Which of the following accounts/transactions would be unsuitable?
Correct Answer: A
Explanation This account/transaction is unsuitable because it does not match Gilles' investment needs and objectives, risk profile, and capacity for loss. A leverage strategy involves borrowing money to invest in mutual funds, which increases the potential returns but also the potential losses. This strategy is very risky and requires a high risk tolerance, a long-term investment horizon, and a sufficient income to cover the interest payments. Gilles is 82 years old, retired, and needs regular income, which means he has a low risk tolerance, a short-term investment horizon, and a limited income. He cannot afford to lose his principal or pay the interest costs. Therefore, a leverage strategy is not appropriate for him. References = IFSE CIFC Module 3: Investment Products, page 3-24. What is Suitability? | MFDAMSN-0069 | MFDA