CAPM Exam Question 256
In a preliminary meeting for a project, team members decide to execute the project with methodology A finance team member wants to know how project cost will be determined at this early stage. How will the project team determine project cost?
Correct Answer: A
According to the Agile Practice Guide and the PMBOKGuide, the approach to cost estimation varies significantly depending on the project life cycle. In an agile or adaptive environment, requirements are expected to evolve, making traditional, granular estimation difficult at the start.
Lightweight Cost Estimation (Choice A): In the early stages of an agile project, the team uses " lightweight " or high-level estimation techniques (such as T-shirt sizing, Story Points, or Relative Sizing). Because the full scope is not yet decomposed into a detailed Work Breakdown Structure (WBS), the goal is to provide a " Rough Order of Magnitude " (ROM) estimate. As the project progresses and the backlog is refined, these estimates become more accurate. This allows the team to remain flexible without wasting time on detailed calculations for requirements that might change.
* Detailed Cost Estimation for Agile (Choice B): This is a contradiction in terms for the early stages of an agile project. Detailed estimation requires a fixed and stable scope. In agile, detailed estimation usually only happens at the iteration (Sprint) level for the immediate work at hand, not for the entire project at a preliminary meeting.
* Previous Project Budget (Choice C): While Analogous Estimating (using a previous project) is a valid technique, simply " retrieving " a budget and setting a baseline without adjusting for the current project ' s specific complexities or constraints is poor practice and leads to inaccurate budgeting.
* Detailed WBS (Choice D): This is the hallmark of a Predictive (Waterfall) life cycle. Creating a detailed WBS and performing Bottom-up Estimating requires the scope to be fully defined upfront.
This is not appropriate for a project following " Methodology A " if that methodology is adaptive, or for any project in its " preliminary " stages where such detail does not yet exist.
In agile environments, the focus is on Value-Based Prioritization. The finance team should understand that while a high-level budget is set early on, the specific allocation of funds is managed dynamically as the team discovers which features deliver the most value during each iteration.
Lightweight Cost Estimation (Choice A): In the early stages of an agile project, the team uses " lightweight " or high-level estimation techniques (such as T-shirt sizing, Story Points, or Relative Sizing). Because the full scope is not yet decomposed into a detailed Work Breakdown Structure (WBS), the goal is to provide a " Rough Order of Magnitude " (ROM) estimate. As the project progresses and the backlog is refined, these estimates become more accurate. This allows the team to remain flexible without wasting time on detailed calculations for requirements that might change.
* Detailed Cost Estimation for Agile (Choice B): This is a contradiction in terms for the early stages of an agile project. Detailed estimation requires a fixed and stable scope. In agile, detailed estimation usually only happens at the iteration (Sprint) level for the immediate work at hand, not for the entire project at a preliminary meeting.
* Previous Project Budget (Choice C): While Analogous Estimating (using a previous project) is a valid technique, simply " retrieving " a budget and setting a baseline without adjusting for the current project ' s specific complexities or constraints is poor practice and leads to inaccurate budgeting.
* Detailed WBS (Choice D): This is the hallmark of a Predictive (Waterfall) life cycle. Creating a detailed WBS and performing Bottom-up Estimating requires the scope to be fully defined upfront.
This is not appropriate for a project following " Methodology A " if that methodology is adaptive, or for any project in its " preliminary " stages where such detail does not yet exist.
In agile environments, the focus is on Value-Based Prioritization. The finance team should understand that while a high-level budget is set early on, the specific allocation of funds is managed dynamically as the team discovers which features deliver the most value during each iteration.
CAPM Exam Question 257
Which of the following is an input to Direct and Manage Project Execution?
Correct Answer: B
According to the PMBOKGuide, the Direct and Manage Project Work process (formerly referred to as Direct and Manage Project Execution in older editions) is the process of leading and performing the work defined in the project management plan and implementing approved changes to achieve the project ' s objectives.
* Approved Change Requests: These are a critical input to this process. Once a change request is processed through the Perform Integrated Change Control process and receives formal approval, it is sent back to the Direct and Manage Project Work process to be implemented.
* Types of Changes: These can include corrective actions, preventive actions, or defect repairs.
* Execution: The project team carries out the work associated with these approved changes alongside the originally planned project activities.
* Other Key Inputs:
* Project Management Plan: Provides the " blueprints " for all project work.
* Project Documents: Such as the requirements documentation, project schedule, and risk register.
* Organizational Process Assets (OPAs) and Enterprise Environmental Factors (EEFs).
Comparison with other options:
* A. Requested changes: These are an output of various processes (including Direct and Manage Project Work itself) when the team identifies that a change is necessary. They do not become an input to execution until they have been " Approved. "
* C. Work performance information: This is typically an output of the Control processes (like Control Schedule or Control Costs). The Direct and Manage process produces Work Performance Data (raw observations), which is then processed into Information by the controlling functions.
* D. Implemented defect repair: This is an output of the Direct and Manage Project Work process. It represents the result of taking action on an approved change request regarding a defect.
* Approved Change Requests: These are a critical input to this process. Once a change request is processed through the Perform Integrated Change Control process and receives formal approval, it is sent back to the Direct and Manage Project Work process to be implemented.
* Types of Changes: These can include corrective actions, preventive actions, or defect repairs.
* Execution: The project team carries out the work associated with these approved changes alongside the originally planned project activities.
* Other Key Inputs:
* Project Management Plan: Provides the " blueprints " for all project work.
* Project Documents: Such as the requirements documentation, project schedule, and risk register.
* Organizational Process Assets (OPAs) and Enterprise Environmental Factors (EEFs).
Comparison with other options:
* A. Requested changes: These are an output of various processes (including Direct and Manage Project Work itself) when the team identifies that a change is necessary. They do not become an input to execution until they have been " Approved. "
* C. Work performance information: This is typically an output of the Control processes (like Control Schedule or Control Costs). The Direct and Manage process produces Work Performance Data (raw observations), which is then processed into Information by the controlling functions.
* D. Implemented defect repair: This is an output of the Direct and Manage Project Work process. It represents the result of taking action on an approved change request regarding a defect.
CAPM Exam Question 258
An input to the Plan Procurement Management process is:
Correct Answer: C
According to the PMBOKGuide (Project Procurement Management), the Plan Procurement Management process is the process of documenting project procurement decisions, specifying the approach, and identifying potential sellers.
The Stakeholder Register is a critical input to this process because it provides details on the project participants and their interests in the project. When planning procurements, the project manager must consider which stakeholders have specific needs, technical requirements, or interests regarding the goods or services being outsourced, as well as those who may have a role in the procurement or legal approval process.
Other key inputs to this process include:
Project Charter
* Business Documents (Business Case and Benefits Management Plan)
* Project Management Plan (specifically the Scope, Quality, and Resource Management Plans)
* Requirement Documentation
* Risk Register
Analysis of Distractors:
A). Source selection criteria: This is a primary output of the Plan Procurement Management process. These criteria are developed to rate or score seller proposals.
* B. Market research: This is a tool and technique used during the Plan Procurement Management process to examine industry capabilities and specific seller requirements. It is an activity performed, not an input document.
* D. A records management system: This is part of the Organizational Process Assets (OPAs). While OPAs are an input category, the records management system is specifically used for managing and archiving contract documentation and records during the Control Procurements process.
The Stakeholder Register is a critical input to this process because it provides details on the project participants and their interests in the project. When planning procurements, the project manager must consider which stakeholders have specific needs, technical requirements, or interests regarding the goods or services being outsourced, as well as those who may have a role in the procurement or legal approval process.
Other key inputs to this process include:
Project Charter
* Business Documents (Business Case and Benefits Management Plan)
* Project Management Plan (specifically the Scope, Quality, and Resource Management Plans)
* Requirement Documentation
* Risk Register
Analysis of Distractors:
A). Source selection criteria: This is a primary output of the Plan Procurement Management process. These criteria are developed to rate or score seller proposals.
* B. Market research: This is a tool and technique used during the Plan Procurement Management process to examine industry capabilities and specific seller requirements. It is an activity performed, not an input document.
* D. A records management system: This is part of the Organizational Process Assets (OPAs). While OPAs are an input category, the records management system is specifically used for managing and archiving contract documentation and records during the Control Procurements process.
CAPM Exam Question 259
What is a tool or technique used in the Control Quality process?
Correct Answer: C
According to the PMBOKGuide (6th Edition), Statistical Sampling is a primary tool and technique used in the Control Quality process. Control Quality is the process of monitoring and recording results of executing quality management activities to assess performance and ensure the project outputs are complete, correct, and meet customer expectations.
Statistical Sampling involves choosing part of a population of interest for inspection. It is used to measure the quality of deliverables without having to inspect every single item, which is particularly useful when:
* The population is very large.
* Inspection is time-consuming or costly.
* Inspection is destructive (e.g., testing the strength of a component until it breaks).
Analysis of Distractors:
* A (Attribute sampling): While " Attribute Sampling " is a method used within quality (measuring whether a result conforms or does not conform), the PMBOKGuide lists Statistical Sampling as the broad Tool and Technique under the Control Quality process (Section 8.3.2.5). Attribute sampling is a specific data logic applied during the sampling process.
* B (Parametric estimating): This is a tool and technique used in Estimate Costs and Estimate Activity Durations. It uses a statistical relationship between historical data and other variables (e.g., square footage in construction) to calculate an estimate. It is not used to verify quality.
* D (Expert judgment): While expert judgment is used in many processes (including Plan Quality Management and Manage Quality), it is not listed as a primary tool and technique for the Control Quality process in the 6th Edition. Control Quality relies more heavily on data representation, inspection, and testing.
Statistical Sampling involves choosing part of a population of interest for inspection. It is used to measure the quality of deliverables without having to inspect every single item, which is particularly useful when:
* The population is very large.
* Inspection is time-consuming or costly.
* Inspection is destructive (e.g., testing the strength of a component until it breaks).
Analysis of Distractors:
* A (Attribute sampling): While " Attribute Sampling " is a method used within quality (measuring whether a result conforms or does not conform), the PMBOKGuide lists Statistical Sampling as the broad Tool and Technique under the Control Quality process (Section 8.3.2.5). Attribute sampling is a specific data logic applied during the sampling process.
* B (Parametric estimating): This is a tool and technique used in Estimate Costs and Estimate Activity Durations. It uses a statistical relationship between historical data and other variables (e.g., square footage in construction) to calculate an estimate. It is not used to verify quality.
* D (Expert judgment): While expert judgment is used in many processes (including Plan Quality Management and Manage Quality), it is not listed as a primary tool and technique for the Control Quality process in the 6th Edition. Control Quality relies more heavily on data representation, inspection, and testing.
CAPM Exam Question 260
Technical capability, past performance, and intellectual property rights are examples of:
Correct Answer: B
According to the PMBOKGuide (Project Management Body of Knowledge), specifically within the Project Procurement Management knowledge area and the Plan Procurement Management process:
Source Selection Criteria (Option B): These are the specific standards used to rate or score seller proposals.
During the procurement planning phase, the buyer identifies the requirements that a seller must meet to be considered for the contract. Examples of these criteria include technical capability (does the seller have the skills?), past performance (have they done this successfully before?), intellectual property rights (who owns the work produced?), as well as financial capacity, cost, and delivery dates.
* Performance Measurement Criteria (Option A): These are used during the Control Procurements process to evaluate the seller ' s actual performance against the contract. While related, these are the " KPIs " used after a contract is signed, rather than the " selection " criteria used to choose a vendor.
* Product Acceptance Criteria (Option C): These are defined in the Project Scope Statement and the Quality Management Plan. They represent the specific conditions or attributes that a deliverable must meet before the customer or sponsor will formally accept it.
* Phase Exit Criteria (Option D): These are the requirements that must be met to successfully complete a project phase and move to the next. They are defined at the project governance level, not specifically for vendor selection.
In the PMI framework, Source Selection Criteria are a critical output of the Plan Procurement Management process. By clearly defining these criteria in the procurement documents (such as an RFP), the Project Manager ensures a fair, transparent, and objective evaluation of all potential sellers, ultimately reducing the risk of project failure due to an unqualified vendor.
Source Selection Criteria (Option B): These are the specific standards used to rate or score seller proposals.
During the procurement planning phase, the buyer identifies the requirements that a seller must meet to be considered for the contract. Examples of these criteria include technical capability (does the seller have the skills?), past performance (have they done this successfully before?), intellectual property rights (who owns the work produced?), as well as financial capacity, cost, and delivery dates.
* Performance Measurement Criteria (Option A): These are used during the Control Procurements process to evaluate the seller ' s actual performance against the contract. While related, these are the " KPIs " used after a contract is signed, rather than the " selection " criteria used to choose a vendor.
* Product Acceptance Criteria (Option C): These are defined in the Project Scope Statement and the Quality Management Plan. They represent the specific conditions or attributes that a deliverable must meet before the customer or sponsor will formally accept it.
* Phase Exit Criteria (Option D): These are the requirements that must be met to successfully complete a project phase and move to the next. They are defined at the project governance level, not specifically for vendor selection.
In the PMI framework, Source Selection Criteria are a critical output of the Plan Procurement Management process. By clearly defining these criteria in the procurement documents (such as an RFP), the Project Manager ensures a fair, transparent, and objective evaluation of all potential sellers, ultimately reducing the risk of project failure due to an unqualified vendor.
- Other Version
- 2915PMI.CAPM.v2026-09-05.q632
- 5005PMI.CAPM.v2026-07-17.q643
- 5554PMI.CAPM.v2023-02-14.q281
- 12172PMI.CAPM.v2022-05-24.q570
- 59PMI.Pass4guide.CAPM.v2022-05-12.by.shirley.570q.pdf
- 15079PMI.CAPM.v2022-01-02.q768
- 89PMI.Exams4sures.CAPM.v2021-08-25.by.odelette.722q.pdf
- Latest Upload
- 161Fortinet.NSE5_FSW_AD-7.6.v2026-10-20.q51
- 189EC-COUNCIL.212-89.v2026-10-20.q204
- 210EC-COUNCIL.312-50.v2026-10-20.q421
- 164Oracle.1Z0-931-26.v2026-10-19.q61
- 159Microsoft.AI-200.v2026-10-19.q43
- 146Oracle.1z0-1195-26.v2026-10-19.q23
- 307Microsoft.MS-102.v2026-10-19.q259
- 394ECCouncil.312-50v13.v2026-10-19.q453
- 208Oracle.1Z0-1110-26.v2026-10-17.q71
- 291CloudSecurityAlliance.CCSK.v2026-10-17.q153
